UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper, Answer Key, and Analysis.
Watch Video: UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper Analysis & Expected Cut-off by Jatin Verma Sir.
UPSC Prelims 2023 Exam Date 2023 for Prelims was 28th May 2023. UPSC Prelims CSAT Paper-1 was held today. The Paper was tough to moderate and the pattern of asking questions was different, leaving no scope for elimination tricks or guesswork. Like every year, lakhs of UPSC aspirants appeared in the exam at various centers across the city. The paper had all the questions asking How many options are correct in place of the conventional way of asking which of the above options are correct!
The UPSC Prelims paper 2023 had four sets Set A, Set B, Set C, and Set D.
We have uploaded Set -D below. The answer key and analysis of the Prelims 2023 Question paper by Jatin Verma Sir can be found on our youtube channel for Set D. Watch Video: Prelims Cutoff and Answer key [Set D]: by Jatin Verma Sir.
Set D
UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2023 :
Question No. Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer 1 B 26 B 51 B 76 D 2 C 27 C 52 B 77 C 3 D 28 D 53 B 78 C 4 C 29 A 54 A 79 B 5 B 30 A 55 D 80 D 6 B 31 C 56 D 81 A 7 A 32 D 57 C 82 B 8 D 33 A 58 A 83 B 9 C 34 C 59 D 84 D 10 C 35 A 60 D 85 D 11 A 36 A 61 D 86 B 12 C 37 D 62 A 87 B 13 D 38 D 63 C 88 A 14 A 39 C 64 A 89 C 15 C 40 C 65 B 90 D 16 C 41 C 66 B 91 A 17 A 42 B 67 C 92 A 18 C 43 D 68 C 93 C 19 A 44 A 69 B 94 B 20 A 45 B 70 D 95 A 21 A 46 B 71 C 96 D 22 C 47 D 72 C 97 C 23 A 48 D 73 A 98 C 24 D 49 C 74 B 99 B 25 B 50 C 75 C 100 C
Set A
UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2023 :
Question No. Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer 1 B 26 B 51 B 76 C 2 B 27 C 52 C 77 B 3 B 28 C 53 A 78 D 4 A 29 B 54 C 79 C 5 D 30 C 55 B 80 B 6 D 31 C 56 A 81 A 7 C 32 A 57 D 82 B 8 A 33 C (Doubtful) 58 D 83 A 9 D 34 A 59 C 84 D 10 D 35 A 60 C 85 C 11 C 36 D 61 A 86 C 12 C 37 C 62 C 87 C 13 A 38 C 63 D 88 D 14 B 39 B 64 D 89 A 15 C 40 C 65 C 90 B 16 D 41 A 66 D 91 C 17 A 42 B 67 A 92 C 18 C 43 B (Doubtful) 68 C 93 D 19 B 44 D 69 A 94 C 20 D 45 D 70 A 95 B 21 D 46 C 71 C 96 B 22 A 47 B 72 C 97 D 23 C 48 A 73 D 98 D 24 A 49 C 74 B 99 C 25 B 50 D 75 B 100 C
[SET D]-UPSC IAS Prelims Answer Key 2023 with explanations
1. Consider the following statements with reference to India:
- According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
- All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer 1: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the classification of enterprises is based on their investments in plant and machinery. Medium enterprises are defined as those with investments between Rs 5 crore and Rs 10 crore.
- Statement 2 is correct
2. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
- It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
With of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer 2: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) allow for direct peer-to-peer transactions in digital currency without the need for intermediaries such as the US dollar or the SWIFT system. CBDCs are designed to be a digital form of legal tender issued and regulated by a central bank.
- Statement 2 is also correct. CBDCs can be programmable, meaning that certain conditions can be attached to the digital currency. For example, a central bank can program a digital currency to have an expiration date or a specific timeframe for spending it. This programmability allows for additional functionalities and control over the use of the digital currency.
- Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
3. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to
- the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
- an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
- a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
- a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Answer 3: D
Explanation:
- Beta is a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.
- In finance, the term "beta" refers to a measure of the systematic risk or volatility of an individual stock or a portfolio of stocks in relation to the overall market.
- It quantifies the sensitivity of an asset's returns to changes in the returns of a benchmark index, usually the market index such as the S&P 500.
- A beta coefficient is calculated through statistical analysis and represents the slope of a regression line that compares the historical returns of the asset with the returns of the benchmark index over a specific period.
- A beta of 1 indicates that the asset tends to move in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 suggests that the asset is more volatile than the market. Conversely, a beta less than 1 indicates that the asset is less volatile than the market.
- Investors and analysts use beta as a tool to assess the risk and potential returns of an investment. A higher beta implies a higher level of risk, as the asset's price is expected to fluctuate more significantly with market movements. On the other hand, a lower beta suggests lower volatility and potentially more stable returns.
- It's important to note that beta is just one factor to consider when evaluating investments, and it should be used in conjunction with other fundamental and technical analysis tools to make informed investment decisions.
4. Consider the following statements:
- The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
- In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
- The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer 4: C
Explanation:
- The correct answer is (c) All three.
- Statement 1 is correct. The Self-Help Group (SHG) program was indeed initiated by the State Bank of India (SBI) to provide microcredit or small loans to financially deprived individuals. The program aimed to promote self-employment and entrepreneurship among the economically weaker sections of society.
- Statement 2 is correct. In an SHG, all members of the group take joint responsibility for the loans taken by individual members. The collective responsibility of the group members ensures peer support, repayment discipline, and risk-sharing within the SHG.
- Statement 3 is also correct. Both Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) support SHGs by providing them with financial services and credit facilities. These banks recognize the importance of SHGs in promoting financial inclusion and supporting the economic empowerment of marginalized sections of society.
- Therefore, all three statements are correct.
5. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II:
Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer 5: B
Explanation:
- The correct answer is (B) as both Statement-I and II are correct but Statement-II is not correct explanation for Statement-I.
- Statement-I is correct. India's public sector health care system has historically focused more on curative care, meaning treating illnesses and diseases after they occur, rather than placing equal emphasis on preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care. This has resulted in a healthcare system that is often more reactive than proactive in addressing health issues.
- Statement-II is also correct India have a decentralized approach to health care delivery, where states play a significant role in organizing health services.
Link: https://www.commonwealthfund.org/international-health-policy-center/countries/india
6. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II:
India needs to extract more than a quarter of the World’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer 6: B
Explanation:
- Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- Statement-I is correct. According to the United Nations' World Water Development Report 2022, India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. This indicates that India has a significant reliance on groundwater resources for various purposes, including irrigation, drinking water, and industrial use.
- Statement-II is also correct. India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world's population living within its territory. Given India's large population and the challenges of water availability and access in certain regions, a substantial amount of groundwater extraction is necessary to meet the demands of its people.
- However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. While it is true that India needs to extract a significant amount of groundwater to fulfill the water requirements of its population, it does not directly explain why India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal. The high groundwater extraction in India is influenced by various factors, including population density, agricultural practices, industrial demands, and water management policies.
- Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
7. Consider the following statements:
- According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
- The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
- According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer 7: A
Explanation: The correct answer is (a) Only one.
Statement 1 is correct. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has the responsibility to protect States from internal disturbances. This is outlined in Article 355 of the Constitution, which states that it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbances.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not specifically exempt the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. The right to legal counsel is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 22 of the Constitution, which applies to all persons, including those subjected to preventive detention.
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, has been repealed and is no longer in force. It was replaced by the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. The admissibility of confessions made to the police as evidence is determined by the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and other relevant laws, not specifically by the Prevention of Terrorism Act.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.
8. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
- Angola
- Costa Rice
- Ecuador
- Somalia
Answer 8: D
Explanation:
- The country that has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and has been in the news in the recent past for its severe famine is (d) Somalia.
- Somalia, located in the Horn of Africa, has experienced ongoing civil conflicts, political instability, and humanitarian crises for several decades. These challenges have resulted in widespread displacement, food insecurity, and economic instability in the country.
- Somalia has faced recurrent droughts and inadequate infrastructure for agriculture, leading to food shortages and famines. The combination of conflict, insecurity, and natural disasters has exacerbated the humanitarian situation in the country, with millions of people in need of assistance.
9. Consider the following statements:
- In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
- The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer 9: C
Explanation:
- Both of the statements given above are correct.
- Statement 1: In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are indeed key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement under the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) that aims to ensure the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. The BMCs play a crucial role in implementing the provisions of the Nagoya Protocol at the local level in India.
- Statement 2: The Biodiversity Management Committees in India do have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing (ABS) of biological resources. They are empowered to grant permissions for accessing biological resources and associated traditional knowledge, and also to monitor and regulate such access. They have the authority to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within their jurisdiction, which helps in generating revenue for biodiversity conservation and benefit-sharing activities. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
10. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
- The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
- Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
- The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Answer 10: C
11. Consider the following countries:
- Bulgaria
- Czech Republic
- Hungary
- Latvia
- Lithuania
- Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border the Ukraine?
- Only two
- Only three
- Only four
- Only five
Answer 11 : A
Explanation:
- Ukraine is bordered by Belarus to the north, Poland to its north west, Slovakia on its western side, and Hungary, Romania and Moldova to the south west.
- It is flanked by Russia on its east and north east border.
12. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
- The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
- Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
- Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
- Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
Answer 12 : C
Explanation:
- The correct statement is (c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapor that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
- Infrared rays are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum, but they are not part of the visible spectrum of solar radiation (option d). Infrared rays have longer wavelengths than visible light and are not visible to the human eye. They carry heat energy and are responsible for the warming of the Earth's surface.
Explanation:
- Water vapor, which is a greenhouse gas, has the ability to absorb and trap infrared radiation in the lower atmosphere. This process contributes to the greenhouse effect and helps regulate the Earth's temperature. Water vapor concentration tends to be higher in the lower atmosphere compared to higher altitudes.
- Regarding the options a and b, while the total amount of insolation (incoming solar radiation) received at the equator is indeed higher than at the poles, it is not roughly 10 times as stated in option a.
- Infrared rays do not constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation, as stated in option b. Insolation consists of a broad range of electromagnetic radiation, including visible light, ultraviolet rays, and infrared rays. The specific proportions of these components can vary depending on factors such as atmospheric conditions and solar angle.
13. Consider the following statements:
Statements-I:
The soil in tropical rainforests is rich in nutrients.
Statements-II:
The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer 13: D
Explanation:
- Statement-I is incorrect. The soils of the tropical rain forest are typically nutrient-poor; all of the nutrients are held in the living organisms. Any nutrients in the soil would be swiftly leached away by the heavy rainfall. Thats why, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest.
- Statement-II states that the high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. This statement is correct. The warm and humid conditions in tropical rain forests provide an ideal environment for the rapid breakdown of organic matter through microbial activity and decomposition processes.
- Thus Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
14. Consider the following statements:
Statements-I:
The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statements-II:
The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer 14: A
Explanation:
- Statement-I states that the temperature contrast between oceans and continents is greater during summer than in winter. This statement is correct. During summer, the differential heating between land and ocean surfaces leads to larger temperature variations, with continents heating up more rapidly than oceans.
- Statement-II states that the specific heat of water is more than that of the land surface. The specific heat of a substance refers to the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the substance by a certain amount. In this case, water has a higher specific heat compared to land. Water can absorb and store more heat energy per unit mass compared to land. This property of water contributes to its role in moderating temperature changes and creating a more stable climate near coastal areas.
- Therefore, the correct option is (A)
15. Consider the following statements:
- In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
- In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer 15 : C
Explanation:
- The statement is correct. In a seismograph, P waves (primary waves) are recorded earlier than S waves (secondary waves) during an earthquake. P waves are the fastest seismic waves and have the ability to travel through solids, liquids, and gases. They propagate as compressional waves, causing particles to vibrate parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
- S waves, on the other hand, are slower than P waves and can only travel through solids. They propagate as transverse waves, causing particles to vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Due to their slower speed and inability to travel through liquids or gases, S waves arrive at the seismograph after P waves.
- This statement is correct. In P waves (primary waves), the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation. This motion is known as compressional or longitudinal motion. As the P waves propagate, they cause particles to push and pull in the same direction that the wave is moving.
- On the other hand, in S waves (secondary waves), the particles vibrate up and down at right angles (perpendicular) to the direction of wave propagation. This motion is known as shearing or transverse motion. As the S waves propagate, they cause particles to move side to side or up and down perpendicular to the direction of the wave.
16. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:
- None of them uses seawater.
- None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
- None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer 16: C
Explanation:
- Statement 3: None of the coal-based thermal power plants in India is privately owned. In India, coal-based thermal power plants are predominantly owned and operated by the government or government-controlled entities. Private ownership of coal-based thermal power plants is limited.Therefore, the correct answer is (C) All three are correct.
